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Tuesday, May 20, 2003

I just took my history test. The last question was: Read Philemon 15-17 on the relationship of Paul, Philemon, and Onesimus. How does this passage undercut the religious arguments in support of slavery? This reminds me of a rhetoric assignment: "Should the US go to war without the approval of the UN? Why or Why not?", which begs the question, should the US go to war in the first place? This question suffers from assuming agreement on whether this passage does, in fact, undercut those (undefined) arguments. It also suffers from not defining slavery--do they mean the OT pattern (Leviticus 25.39-40), or the Southern pattern of lifelong slavery? My (edited) answer is below.

This passage is confusing when applied without defining terms. How can a lifetime slave, who is enslaved by race, be treated as a beloved brother? If he has little or no hope of freedom, is that not cruel? Yet Ephesians 6:5-9 and Colossians 3:22 are clear that bondservants, or slaves, should submit to their masters and their masters should remember their own master is in heaven. The key to understanding this is the Old Testament law which required that every 7th year all slaves/ indentured servants be freed who were fellow Israelites, or brothers. (Deuteronomy 15:12) Since this law nowhere was repealed, it is still required, thus putting the South's system of lifelong servitude clearly at fault.

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